Thank you very much for your detailed response.
However, I don't see the difference between having an existing unsecured loan from a past spending and taking a new loan to create some cash for the purpose of satisfying the fund requirement.
In both cases, the loan is only associated with the person, not the cashed generated from the loan, nor asset purchased using the loan. I am only speaking of a unsecured loan here. After taking the loan, I have cash that is unencumbered by debt, and some debt associated with me as a person. For example, what's the difference between, say,
1) I took a 20k unsecured loan to by a car a year ago, and now I have 20k cash (earned from income) in my cash account as the POF and the uncleared debt,
2) I took a 20k unsecured loan to created 20k cash, and now I have 20k cash (created from the loan) in my cash account as the POF and the uncleared debt.
In both cases, the loan stands on it's own as a liability to me as a person, and the cash is not associated with the loan. The cash is not encumbered by the loan or debt, and is not used as a security.
If 1) satisfies the POF, then 2) should also satisfy the POF.
Any idea, thanks?